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  "body": "\n## Proof\n\n1. Fix a real $x$. Let $u_n = \\frac{(-1)^n x^{2n+1}}{(2n+1)!}$ for $n \\ge 0$, where $k!$ is the [[factorial|0WFCGVMRRC]].\n2. If $x = 0$, every $u_n$ is $0$, so $\\sum \\abs{u_n}$ converges.\n3. If $x \\ne 0$, then $u_n \\ne 0$ and $\\frac{\\abs{u_{n+1}}}{\\abs{u_n}} = \\frac{x^2}{(2n+2)(2n+3)} \\to 0 \u003c 1$.\n4. By the [[ratio test|0QNY6ZBXPN]], $\\sum u_n$ converges [[absolutely|0W3K3QPEWT]] in this case too.\n5. By the [[definition of sine|0WB57D9488]], $\\sin x = \\sum_{n=0}^{\\infty} u_n = x - \\frac{x^3}{3!} + \\frac{x^5}{5!} - \\cdots$.\n6. It remains to identify this series as the Maclaurin series. By the [[derivative of sine|00R4MWW532]] and the [[derivative of cosine|0V2DV29EGT]], $\\sin' = \\cos$ and $\\cos' = -\\sin$ on $\\mathbb{R}$.\n7. By induction on $k$, the [[higher derivatives|084NGSTWM7]] exist for all orders: $\\sin^{(4k)} = \\sin$, $\\sin^{(4k+1)} = \\cos$, $\\sin^{(4k+2)} = -\\sin$ and $\\sin^{(4k+3)} = -\\cos$. So $\\sin$ is smooth.\n8. At $0$, every term of the sine series vanishes, and only the first term of the cosine series is nonzero. So $\\sin 0 = 0$ and $\\cos 0 = 1$.\n9. By steps 7 and 8, $\\sin^{(m)}(0) = 0$ for even $m$, $\\sin^{(m)}(0) = 1$ for $m = 4k + 1$, and $\\sin^{(m)}(0) = -1$ for $m = 4k + 3$.\n10. So for $m = 2n + 1$ we get $\\sin^{(m)}(0) = (-1)^n$, since $n$ is even exactly when $m = 4k + 1$.\n11. The [[Maclaurin series|043SJ5RF59]] $\\sum_m \\frac{\\sin^{(m)}(0)}{m!} x^m$ thus has zero terms for even $m$, and the term $\\frac{(-1)^n x^{2n+1}}{(2n+1)!}$ for $m = 2n + 1$.\n12. Removing the zero terms, the Maclaurin series of $\\sin$ is $\\sum_{n=0}^{\\infty} \\frac{(-1)^n x^{2n+1}}{(2n+1)!}$, the series of the statement.\n\n## Idea\n\nThe terms shrink like $\\frac{1}{(2n+1)!}$, which beats any power of $x$, so the ratio test gives absolute convergence. With sine defined by this series, the equality is the definition. The derivatives of $\\sin$ at $0$ cycle through $0, 1, 0, -1$, and these values give back the same coefficients.\n",
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