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  "body": "\n## Proof\n\nWe argue by [[induction|0ASJVEFA9J]] on $n$.\nLet $x$ be a real number with $x \\ge -1$.\nFor each natural number $n$, let $P(n)$ be the claim $(1 + x)^n \\ge 1 + n x$.\nWe use the rules of the [[ordered field $\\mathbb{R}$|0QSPNASE50]].\n\n1. Base case: $(1 + x)^0 = 1$ and $1 + 0 \\cdot x = 1$. So $P(0)$ holds.\n2. Induction step: suppose that $P(n)$ holds, that is, $(1 + x)^n - (1 + n x) \\ge 0$.\n3. Since $x \\ge -1$, adding $1$ to both sides gives $1 + x \\ge 0$.\n4. The product of two nonnegative reals is nonnegative. So $\\big((1 + x)^n - (1 + n x)\\big)(1 + x) \\ge 0$ by steps 2 and 3.\n5. Expanding step 4 gives $(1 + x)^{n+1} \\ge (1 + n x)(1 + x)$.\n6. We expand: $(1 + n x)(1 + x) = 1 + (n + 1) x + n x^2$.\n7. If $x \\ge 0$, then $x^2 = x \\cdot x \\ge 0$. If $x \u003c 0$, then $-x \u003e 0$ and $x^2 = (-x)(-x) \\ge 0$. Since $n \\ge 0$, also $n x^2 \\ge 0$.\n8. Adding $1 + (n + 1) x$ to $n x^2 \\ge 0$ gives $1 + (n + 1) x + n x^2 \\ge 1 + (n + 1) x$.\n9. By steps 5, 6 and 8 and transitivity, $(1 + x)^{n+1} \\ge 1 + (n + 1) x$. So $P(n + 1)$ holds.\n10. By induction, $(1 + x)^n \\ge 1 + n x$ for every natural number $n$.\n\n## Idea\n\nEach step multiplies by $1 + x$, which is allowed in an inequality because $1 + x \\ge 0$.\nThe product $(1 + n x)(1 + x)$ equals $1 + (n + 1) x$ plus the extra term $n x^2$.\nThis extra term is never negative, so it can be dropped.\n",
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