Math 2.0

counterexample

sin(1/x) has no limit at 0

Counterexample

Let f(x)=sin⁡(1/x)f(x) = \sin(1/x) for x≠0x \ne 0. Then lim⁡x→0f(x)\lim_{x \to 0} f(x) does not exist, and neither one-sided limit exists. Let xn=1/(2πn+π/2)x_n = 1/(2 \pi n + \pi/2) and yn=1/(πn)y_n = 1/(\pi n). Both sequences tend to 00 from the right, but f(xn)=1f(x_n) = 1 and f(yn)=0f(y_n) = 0 for all n≥1n \ge 1.

Remarks

The argument uses the sequential characterization of limits. So no value of ff at 00 makes ff continuous at 00. The point 00 is an essential discontinuity. The graph of ff on (0,1](0, 1], with its closure, is the topologist's sine curve.

Explanations

L1 human

As xx approaches 00, the number 1/x1/x grows without bound. So sin⁡(1/x)\sin(1/x) swings between −1-1 and 11 faster and faster, and it settles at no value.

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  1. Limit point of a set definition
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  6. Sequential characterization of limits statement
  7. sin(1/x) has no limit at 0 counterexample

Sources

  1. Web https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Topologist%27s_sine_curve, lead section